Free CNA Practice Test
60 NNAAP-style questions across every content area on the written exam. One question at a time, just like test day — full explanations at the end. No signup.
60
Questions
11
NNAAP Topics
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The 60-Question Exam
This exam runs in simulator mode: one question at a time — picking an answer saves it and automatically moves you to the next question. You will not see right or wrong until you finish, just like the real NNAAP. Score 45 of 60 (75%) or better and you are on track.
Exam-simulator mode: picking an answer saves it and automatically moves you to the next question. You will not see right/wrong until you finish — just like the real NNAAP.
Question 1 of 60.Which of the following is the single most effective method for preventing the spread of infection in a long-term care facility?
Prefer to read? All 60 questions with answers
Which of the following is the single most effective method for preventing the spread of infection in a long-term care facility?
- Wearing gloves at all times
- Hand hygiene before and after every resident contact (correct answer)
- Wearing a surgical mask in hallways
- Using alcohol wipes on bedside tables
Hand hygiene is the number-one infection-control measure recognized by the CDC and is the most tested concept on the NNAAP written exam. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene; you must wash your hands after removing them.
How long should a CNA scrub the hands with soap and water during routine hand washing?
- At least 5 seconds
- At least 10 seconds
- At least 20 seconds (correct answer)
- At least 60 seconds
The CDC recommends at least 20 seconds of friction with soap and warm water — roughly the time it takes to sing 'Happy Birthday' twice. This is also a graded step on the NNAAP hand-hygiene skill.
A resident is on contact precautions for MRSA. Which personal protective equipment must the CNA wear before entering the room?
- N95 respirator only
- Gown and gloves (correct answer)
- Surgical mask only
- Gown, gloves, mask, and eye protection
Contact precautions require a gown and gloves for any patient contact or contact with the patient's environment. N95 respirators are reserved for airborne precautions.
Which sequence is correct when REMOVING personal protective equipment after care?
- Gown, gloves, eye protection, mask
- Mask, eye protection, gown, gloves
- Gloves, eye protection, gown, mask (correct answer)
- Gloves, gown, mask, eye protection
PPE is removed in the order most-contaminated to least-contaminated: gloves first (they are dirtiest), then eye protection, then gown, and finally the mask. The mask is removed last because the front is considered contaminated and is the last barrier protecting your airway.
Which of the following is NOT one of the six links in the chain of infection?
- Pathogen
- Reservoir
- Susceptible host
- Vaccination (correct answer)
The six links are pathogen, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host. Vaccination is one method of breaking the chain, not a link in it.
A resident has a known diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis. Which type of precautions must the CNA follow?
- Standard precautions only
- Contact precautions
- Droplet precautions
- Airborne precautions (correct answer)
Tuberculosis is spread by tiny airborne droplet nuclei and requires airborne precautions — a fit-tested N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room with the door kept closed.
Which federal law established the Resident Bill of Rights for long-term care facilities?
- HIPAA (1996)
- OBRA '87 (Nursing Home Reform Act) (correct answer)
- ADA (1990)
- Patient Self-Determination Act (1990)
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA '87) created the federal Resident Bill of Rights for every facility receiving Medicare or Medicaid funds. It remains the single most-tested law on the NNAAP exam.
A daughter calls the unit and asks about her mother's blood pressure. What is the CNA's BEST response?
- Tell her the latest reading
- Refer her to the nurse and confirm she is on the approved contact list (correct answer)
- Hang up the phone
- Ask her to come in person
Under HIPAA, a CNA may not disclose PHI over the phone without verifying the caller is authorized. Always refer family inquiries to the nurse, who can confirm the approved contact list.
A resident with capacity refuses her morning bath. What should the CNA do?
- Bathe her anyway because it is policy
- Threaten to call her family
- Stop, ask why, offer alternatives, document, and report to the nurse (correct answer)
- Wait until she is asleep and proceed
Residents have a federally protected right to refuse care. The correct sequence is stop, ask why, offer reasonable alternatives, document the refusal, and report it to the charge nurse.
Which of the following BEST demonstrates respect for a resident's dignity?
- Calling the resident 'sweetie'
- Knocking and waiting before entering the room (correct answer)
- Discussing the resident at the nurses' station within earshot
- Choosing the resident's outfit without asking
Knocking and waiting for permission acknowledges the resident's privacy and dignity. Pet names like 'sweetie' or 'honey' are dignity violations on the NNAAP exam.
Which of the following is an example of physical abuse?
- Yelling at a resident
- Slapping a resident's hand (correct answer)
- Ignoring a call light
- Taking money from a resident's drawer
Physical abuse is intentional bodily harm — hitting, slapping, pinching, or rough handling. Yelling is emotional abuse, ignoring care is neglect, and taking money is financial exploitation.
A CNA suspects that a coworker is striking a resident. What should the CNA do?
- Confront the coworker
- Tell the family
- Report the suspicion immediately to the charge nurse and administrator (correct answer)
- Wait for proof before saying anything
CNAs are mandatory reporters in every state. You must report any suspicion of abuse immediately — not investigate, not collect proof. Failure to report can mean termination and loss of certification.
Which is a NORMAL adult oral temperature range?
- 95.0 to 96.5 F
- 97.6 to 99.6 F (correct answer)
- 100 to 101 F
- 101 to 102 F
The normal adult oral temperature range is 97.6 to 99.6 degrees Fahrenheit, with an average of 98.6 F. Axillary readings run about 1 degree lower and rectal/tympanic readings about 1 degree higher.
Where is the radial pulse located?
- On the neck
- On the thumb side of the inner wrist (correct answer)
- In the groin
- Behind the knee
The radial pulse is found on the thumb side of the inner wrist over the radial artery. Use the first two fingers, never the thumb (which has its own pulse).
Normal respiratory rate for a resting adult is:
- 6 to 10 breaths per minute
- 12 to 20 breaths per minute (correct answer)
- 22 to 30 breaths per minute
- 35 to 45 breaths per minute
12 to 20 breaths per minute is the normal adult respiratory rate. Count without telling the resident, since awareness changes the rate.
Which blood-pressure reading should be reported IMMEDIATELY to the nurse?
- 118/74
- 122/78
- 85/55 (correct answer)
- 120/80
A blood pressure below 90/60 is hypotensive and may indicate shock, dehydration, or medication effects. Report any reading outside the resident's baseline.
How often should a bedbound resident be repositioned?
- Every 8 hours
- Every 4 hours
- At least every 2 hours (correct answer)
- Once per shift
Immobile residents must be repositioned at least every 2 hours to prevent pressure injuries, maintain circulation, and prevent contractures.
Which side of the bed should the chair be placed on for a transfer?
- The resident's weaker side
- The resident's stronger side (correct answer)
- Either side
- The side closest to the door
The chair is placed on the resident's stronger (unaffected) side at a slight angle so the resident can push up with the strong leg and pivot toward the chair safely.
What does the acronym RACE stand for during a facility fire?
- Run, Alarm, Cover, Evacuate
- Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish (correct answer)
- Report, Act, Call, End
- Remove, Assess, Cover, Exit
RACE: Rescue residents in immediate danger, Activate the alarm, Contain the fire by closing doors and windows, and Extinguish only if it is small and safe to do so.
What does the acronym PASS stand for when using a fire extinguisher?
- Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep (correct answer)
- Push, Aim, Spray, Stop
- Press, Apply, Spray, Sweep
- Pull, Apply, Stop, Spray
PASS: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep side to side. Only attempt to extinguish small fires when residents are safe and exits are clear.
A conscious adult resident is choking and cannot speak or cough. The CNA should:
- Encourage the resident to drink water
- Begin abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver) (correct answer)
- Wait for the resident to clear it on their own
- Call 911 and watch
A conscious choking adult with a complete airway obstruction requires immediate abdominal thrusts. If the resident becomes unconscious, lower them to the floor and begin CPR.
The MOST important fall-prevention measure for a confused resident is:
- Keeping all four side rails up
- Keeping the bed in the lowest position with the call light within reach (correct answer)
- Restricting visitors
- Sedating the resident
Bed in the lowest position, call light in reach, non-skid footwear, frequent rounding, and a clutter-free room are the best fall-prevention strategies. Four side rails up are considered a restraint.
Which is true about oxygen safety?
- Open flames are safe near oxygen
- Petroleum-based products like Vaseline can be used freely near oxygen
- NO SMOKING signs must be posted and no open flames or sparks may be near the resident (correct answer)
- Oxygen tanks can be stored lying down
Oxygen supports combustion. NO SMOKING signs must be posted, electrical equipment that sparks must be avoided, and petroleum products should not be used on the resident's face.
Which is the correct action if a resident begins to fall during ambulation?
- Try to hold them up by the arm
- Ease them to the floor while bending your knees and protecting their head (correct answer)
- Let them fall and then assess
- Walk away to get help
Never try to stop a fall mid-air — you can injure yourself and the resident. Bend your knees, hold the gait belt, and ease the resident to the floor in a controlled descent, protecting the head.
Which is an example of a therapeutic, open-ended question?
- Are you in pain?
- Did you sleep well?
- How are you feeling this morning? (correct answer)
- Do you want lunch?
Open-ended questions invite the resident to share more than a yes-or-no answer. They build trust and gather richer information. Close-ended questions are useful for specific facts but limit conversation.
A resident with hearing loss is having trouble understanding the CNA. The CNA should:
- Shout into the resident's ear
- Face the resident, speak slowly and clearly, lower the pitch slightly, and reduce background noise (correct answer)
- Talk faster
- Cover the mouth while speaking
Effective communication with hearing-impaired residents involves facing them, speaking slowly in a lower pitch (high frequencies are lost first), and reducing background noise — never shouting.
Which is an example of NONVERBAL communication?
- Saying 'good morning'
- A warm smile and gentle touch (correct answer)
- Reading a chart aloud
- Asking a question
Nonverbal communication includes facial expressions, eye contact, gestures, touch, body posture, and tone. It often communicates more than words and is vital with cognitively impaired residents.
Which is the BEST way to communicate with a resident who has aphasia?
- Avoid speaking to them
- Use simple yes-or-no questions, picture boards, and allow extra time for a response (correct answer)
- Speak loudly
- Finish their sentences
Aphasia after a stroke makes word-finding difficult. Use short sentences, yes-or-no questions, picture boards, and allow plenty of time. Never finish the resident's sentences or pretend to understand.
Subjective data is BEST defined as:
- What the CNA observes
- What the resident reports (correct answer)
- Lab results
- Vital sign measurements
Subjective data is what the resident states ('I feel dizzy'). Objective data is what the CNA can measure or observe (BP 90/60). Both belong in the chart.
Which charting entry is correct?
- Resident seems unhappy today
- Resident states 'I don't feel like getting up. Everything hurts.' Refused breakfast and AM care. Reported to nurse at 0815. (correct answer)
- She was kind of grumpy
- Did not want care
Documentation must be factual, specific, time-stamped, and free of opinion. Always quote the resident, record what was actually done, and document reporting to the nurse.
Which BEST describes dementia?
- A normal part of aging
- A progressive decline in cognitive function severe enough to interfere with daily life (correct answer)
- A short-term confusion that resolves
- A mood disorder
Dementia is a progressive, often irreversible decline in cognition affecting memory, judgment, language, and behavior — not a normal part of aging. Alzheimer's disease is the most common type.
Which is the difference between dementia and delirium?
- Both develop slowly
- Delirium is sudden and often reversible; dementia is gradual and progressive (correct answer)
- Delirium is permanent
- There is no difference
Delirium is acute, often caused by infection, medication, or dehydration, and is usually reversible. Dementia is chronic and progressive. Sudden confusion in an elderly resident should always be reported as a possible delirium.
Sundowning is BEST described as:
- Falling asleep in the afternoon
- Increased confusion, agitation, or restlessness in the late afternoon and evening (correct answer)
- A lab value
- A type of medication
Sundowning is increased confusion, anxiety, agitation, or wandering in the late afternoon and evening, common in dementia. Bright lighting, calm activity, and routine can help reduce it.
Which is an appropriate response to a dementia resident who is agitated?
- Argue with the resident
- Use a calm voice, simple words, and redirect to a familiar, soothing activity (correct answer)
- Restrain the resident
- Lock the resident in the room
Calmness, simple sentences, validation of feelings, and redirection are core dementia-care techniques. Identify and remove triggers (noise, pain, hunger, full bladder).
A resident with Alzheimer's keeps insisting she has to go to work. The CNA should:
- Tell her she has been retired for 20 years and stop arguing
- Acknowledge her feelings ('Work was important to you'), and redirect to a familiar activity (correct answer)
- Lock her in her room
- Call her family to scold her
Validation therapy acknowledges the emotion behind the behavior without correcting the fact. Reality orientation can sometimes worsen distress in advanced dementia.
Perineal care on a female resident is performed:
- From back to front
- From front to back, using a new section of the washcloth for each stroke (correct answer)
- In any direction
- Only once a week
Always clean from front to back (clean to dirty) to prevent fecal contamination of the urinary tract. Use a fresh section of the cloth for each stroke. This prevents UTIs.
Which water temperature is correct for a bath?
- Hot, around 120 F
- Warm, around 105 F (correct answer)
- Cold, around 70 F
- Whatever the resident prefers without checking
Bathwater is checked with a bath thermometer or the inner wrist and should be around 105 F (40.5 C). Elderly residents have thinner skin and decreased sensation, so the CNA verifies the temperature.
When bathing a resident, the CNA should wash:
- From dirtiest area to cleanest
- From cleanest area to dirtiest (eyes and face first, perineum last) (correct answer)
- In any order
- Only the back
Bathing proceeds from cleanest to dirtiest: eyes (inner to outer corner, clean side of cloth for each eye), face, arms and chest, abdomen, legs, perineum last. Change water if it becomes cool or soiled.
Oral care for an unconscious resident should be:
- Skipped
- Performed every 2 hours with the head turned to one side (correct answer)
- Done once a week
- Avoided to prevent aspiration
Unconscious residents need oral care every 2 hours to prevent aspiration pneumonia and discomfort. Position the head to the side, use a small amount of fluid and oral swabs, and have suction available.
Dentures should be cleaned:
- Over the sink with no water in it
- Over a basin of cool water or a soft cloth-lined sink to prevent breakage if dropped (correct answer)
- In hot water
- Only weekly
Always clean dentures over a water-filled basin or cloth-lined sink. Use cool or lukewarm water (hot water warps acrylic). Store in a covered, labeled container of water when not in the mouth.
Which is OBJECTIVE data?
- The resident says 'I feel dizzy'
- Blood pressure of 90/60 (correct answer)
- The resident reports nausea
- The resident says 'I hurt'
Objective data is measurable or observable (vital signs, intake amount, skin color). Subjective data is what the resident reports. Both are documented and reported.
Which abbreviation means 'as needed'?
- BID
- PRN (correct answer)
- TID
- QID
PRN (pro re nata) means 'as needed.' BID is twice daily, TID is three times daily, QID is four times daily. Memorize common abbreviations for the NNAAP exam.
Which abbreviation means 'nothing by mouth'?
- PO
- NPO (correct answer)
- PRN
- IV
NPO (nil per os) means nothing by mouth. The CNA must check for an NPO order before offering food, water, ice chips, or oral medications.
Charting must be:
- Filled with the CNA's personal opinion
- Factual, specific, timely, legible, and signed (correct answer)
- Written in pencil
- Done at the end of the week
Documentation must be factual, specific, timely (charted as soon as possible after care), legible, in ink (if paper), without opinion, and signed with the CNA's title.
What is the correct way to correct an error in a paper chart?
- Use white-out
- Scribble it out
- Draw a single line through the error, write 'error,' initial and date it (correct answer)
- Tear out the page
Single line through the error, write 'error' (or 'mistaken entry') above, initial and date. White-out and erasures suggest fraud. Electronic records are corrected with a tracked addendum.
Which is OUTSIDE the CNA's scope of practice?
- Measuring vital signs
- Administering medications (correct answer)
- Helping with bathing
- Reporting changes in condition
CNAs do not administer medications, perform sterile procedures, give IV therapy, or interpret data. Even seemingly minor medication tasks (like applying lotion containing medication) require a nurse's delegation per facility policy.
Negligence is BEST defined as:
- Intentional harm
- Failure to provide care that a reasonable person would provide, resulting in harm (correct answer)
- Refusing to work overtime
- Asking for clarification
Negligence is the failure to perform care that a reasonable, prudent CNA would perform under similar circumstances, leading to actual harm. Examples: not turning a resident, ignoring call lights, skipping vital signs.
Locking a competent resident in a room is an example of:
- Reasonable supervision
- False imprisonment (correct answer)
- Privacy protection
- Standard care
Restricting a competent resident's movement against their will is false imprisonment, a tort under state and federal law. Restraints — physical, chemical, or environmental — require a physician's order and strict criteria.
Threatening to harm a resident is:
- Battery
- Assault (correct answer)
- Negligence
- Acceptable when frustrated
Assault is the threat of harm — words or gestures that make the resident reasonably believe they will be touched without consent. Battery is the actual unwanted touching.
Which is the BEST example of beneficence?
- Doing harm
- Acting in the resident's best interest (correct answer)
- Ignoring requests
- Sharing PHI
Beneficence is the ethical duty to do good. The four core healthcare ethics principles are: autonomy (respecting choices), beneficence (do good), nonmaleficence (do no harm), and justice (fairness).
Which is the FIRST stage of grief according to Kubler-Ross?
- Anger
- Denial (correct answer)
- Bargaining
- Acceptance
Kubler-Ross described five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. They do not always occur in order and not every person passes through every stage.
A dying resident says 'I'm scared.' The BEST response is:
- You'll be fine
- Sit with the resident, listen, and acknowledge the feeling: 'Tell me what's scaring you.' (correct answer)
- Change the subject
- Walk away
Presence, active listening, and gentle acknowledgment of fear are far more therapeutic than reassurance. Encourage spiritual or family support per the resident's wishes.
Hospice care focuses on:
- Curing the disease
- Comfort and quality of life for terminally ill residents and their families (correct answer)
- Aggressive treatment
- Long-term rehabilitation
Hospice is comfort-focused care for residents with a terminal prognosis (typically 6 months or less). Palliative care can be offered alongside curative care, while hospice is specifically end-of-life.
Which is a sign that death is approaching (hours to days)?
- Strong appetite
- Mottled extremities, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, decreased urine output, drop in BP (correct answer)
- High energy
- Improved alertness
Late-stage signs include mottled, cool extremities; Cheyne-Stokes (irregular, shallow then rapid) breathing; death rattle (oral secretions); decreased urine output; falling blood pressure; and decreasing responsiveness.
Which is true about hearing at end of life?
- Hearing is the first sense lost
- Hearing is believed to be the LAST sense to fade — always speak gently and assume the resident hears you (correct answer)
- Hearing returns fully at death
- Hearing is irrelevant
Hearing is widely believed to remain even when the dying person cannot respond. Always speak calmly, identify yourself, explain care, and avoid disturbing conversation at the bedside.
A resident with diabetes is shaky, sweaty, and confused. The CNA should suspect:
- Hyperglycemia
- Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) (correct answer)
- Normal
- A cold
Hypoglycemia presents with shakiness, sweating, confusion, hunger, fast pulse, and possibly slurred speech. Notify the nurse immediately. If the resident can swallow, give a fast-acting carbohydrate per facility policy.
Which is a sign of a stroke (FAST)?
- Headache only
- Face drooping, arm weakness, speech difficulty, time to call 911 (correct answer)
- Normal speech
- Strong handshake
FAST identifies stroke: Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call 911. Rapid intervention preserves brain function.
Which is the BEST positioning to relieve breathing in a resident with COPD?
- Supine flat
- High Fowler's with the resident leaning forward on a bedside table (tripod position) (correct answer)
- Prone
- Trendelenburg
Residents with COPD breathe more easily upright or leaning forward (tripod position), which lowers the diaphragm and recruits accessory muscles.
Which is a sign of congestive heart failure (CHF)?
- Decreased weight
- Edema in the ankles, shortness of breath, weight gain of more than 2 lb in a day, and difficulty breathing when lying down (correct answer)
- Increased energy
- No symptoms
CHF causes fluid buildup: edema (ankles, legs, sacrum), weight gain, dyspnea on exertion or lying down (orthopnea), crackles in the lungs, and fatigue. Report any of these promptly.
Parkinson disease is characterized by:
- High energy
- Tremor (often pill-rolling), rigidity, slow movement, and shuffling gait (correct answer)
- Rapid speech
- No symptoms
Parkinson disease features tremor at rest, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movement), shuffling gait, mask-like face, and postural instability. Fall risk is high.
Topic-Specific CNA Practice Tests
Drill the area you are weakest in. Each topical practice test has 22 to 25 NNAAP-style questions with full explanations and links to the matching free study guide.
25 questions
Infection Control
Free NNAAP-style questions with clear explanations.
25 questions
Patient Rights
Free NNAAP-style questions with clear explanations.
25 questions
Basic Nursing Skills
Free NNAAP-style questions with clear explanations.
22 questions
Safety and Emergency Procedures
Free NNAAP-style questions with clear explanations.
22 questions
Communication Skills
Free NNAAP-style questions with clear explanations.
22 questions
Mental Health and Cognitive Impairment
Free NNAAP-style questions with clear explanations.
22 questions
Personal Care and Elimination
Free NNAAP-style questions with clear explanations.
22 questions
Data Collection and Reporting
Free NNAAP-style questions with clear explanations.
22 questions
Legal and Ethical Issues
Free NNAAP-style questions with clear explanations.
22 questions
End-of-Life Care
Free NNAAP-style questions with clear explanations.
22 questions
Body Systems and Common Conditions
Free NNAAP-style questions with clear explanations.
Hands-on portion
CNA Skills Test (22 Skills)
Master the 22 NNAAP clinical skills, including the always-tested hand washing.
About the NNAAP Written Exam
The National Nurse Aide Assessment Program (NNAAP) is the standardized exam used in most U.S. states to certify nursing assistants. It was developed by Pearson VUE (now Credentia) and is currently the most widely used CNA exam vendor in the country, although a few states use Prometric, Headmaster/D&SDT, or PSI instead. The exam has two parts that must both be passed: a written (or oral) knowledge test and a hands-on clinical skills evaluation.
Written Exam Format
The written portion of the NNAAP has 60 scored multiple-choice questions plus approximately 10 unscored 'pretest' questions, for a total of about 70 items. Candidates are given 90 minutes to complete the test. Each question has four answer options, only one of which is correct. The written exam is also available in an oral version for candidates who have difficulty reading English — questions are read aloud to the candidate through headphones.
What Topics Are Covered
The current NNAAP content outline weights questions across eight categories: Activities of Daily Living (about 9%), Basic Nursing Skills (39%), Restorative Skills (8%), Emotional and Mental Health Needs (9%), Spiritual and Cultural Needs (2%), Communication (8%), Client Rights (7%), Legal and Ethical Behavior (3%), and Member of the Health Care Team (15%). Basic Nursing Skills is by far the largest single block — about four out of every ten questions — which is why our topical practice tests devote heavy coverage to vital signs, transfers, positioning, and ROM.
Passing Score
A passing score is approximately 75% on the written exam, although the precise cut score is set by each state and is sometimes scaled rather than reported as a raw percentage. Most candidates who consistently score above 80% on our practice tests pass the NNAAP on their first attempt. If you fail, most states allow at least three attempts within a 24-month period before retraining is required.
How These Practice Tests Map to the Exam
Every question on freecnatraining.org is written to mirror NNAAP question style and tested content. Our 11 topical tests map directly to the NNAAP content outline and the 11 free online CNA study guides on our site, so you can cycle between reading the guide and drilling questions on the same topic. The 60-question general exam samples proportionally from every topic so you get a realistic mix that mirrors what you will see on test day.
Frequently Asked Questions
How many questions are on the CNA written exam?
Most states using the NNAAP written exam administered by Credentia have 60 scored questions plus about 10 unscored 'pretest' questions, for a total of 60 to 70 items. Candidates are typically given 90 minutes to complete the test. A few states use Prometric, Headmaster/D&SDT, or PSI, which use a similar 60-100 question format. Check your state's CNA requirements page for the exact format you will face.
What is a passing score on the CNA practice test?
Passing scores vary slightly by state and vendor but typically fall between 70% and 80% of questions correct. On our 60-question free practice test, we use 75% (45 of 60) as a baseline benchmark — if you can consistently score above 75%, you are in good shape for the real NNAAP written exam.
Is this CNA practice test free?
Yes. Every question, explanation, and topic-specific practice test on freecnatraining.org is 100% free. There are no signups, paywalls, or hidden trials. Most competing practice-test sites charge $30 to $100 per month, but our material is funded by our directory and remains free for students.
What topics are on the NNAAP written exam?
The current NNAAP content outline covers Activities of Daily Living, Basic Nursing and Restorative Skills, Emotional and Mental Health Needs, Spiritual and Cultural Needs, Communication, Client Rights, Legal and Ethical Behavior, and Member of the Health Care Team. Our 11 topical practice tests map directly to these categories.
How should I use these practice tests to prepare?
Take the 60-question general practice test first to identify weak areas. Then drill the topic-specific practice tests (infection control, patient rights, basic nursing skills, etc.) for any category where you missed multiple questions. Re-read the corresponding free online study guide on each topic, then retake the topical test. Most students need 2-3 cycles before consistently scoring above 80%.
Is the actual written exam multiple choice?
Yes. The NNAAP written exam is multiple-choice with four answer options per question. There is also an oral version for candidates who request it due to reading difficulty. The skills (clinical) portion is separate — candidates perform 5 randomly selected hands-on skills, with hand washing always being one of them.
Ready for the Skills Portion?
The written exam is only half. You also have to pass the hands-on skills test — 5 randomly selected skills, with hand washing always included.
Master the 22 NNAAP Skills