Free CNA Practice Test
Safety and Emergency Procedures
22 NNAAP-style questions, one at a time — just like exam day. Score and full explanations at the end.
Free CNA practice test on safety and emergency procedures — fall prevention, fire safety (RACE/PACE), choking and the Heimlich, CPR basics, oxygen safety, and disaster response. Critical NNAAP content for the written exam.
Need a refresher first? Read our free Safety & Emergency Procedures study guide before taking the test.
Exam-simulator mode: picking an answer saves it and automatically moves you to the next question. You will not see right/wrong until you finish — just like the real NNAAP.
Question 1 of 22.What does the acronym RACE stand for during a facility fire?
Prefer to read? All 22 questions with answers
What does the acronym RACE stand for during a facility fire?
- Run, Alarm, Cover, Evacuate
- Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish (correct answer)
- Report, Act, Call, End
- Remove, Assess, Cover, Exit
RACE: Rescue residents in immediate danger, Activate the alarm, Contain the fire by closing doors and windows, and Extinguish only if it is small and safe to do so.
What does the acronym PASS stand for when using a fire extinguisher?
- Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep (correct answer)
- Push, Aim, Spray, Stop
- Press, Apply, Spray, Sweep
- Pull, Apply, Stop, Spray
PASS: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep side to side. Only attempt to extinguish small fires when residents are safe and exits are clear.
A conscious adult resident is choking and cannot speak or cough. The CNA should:
- Encourage the resident to drink water
- Begin abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver) (correct answer)
- Wait for the resident to clear it on their own
- Call 911 and watch
A conscious choking adult with a complete airway obstruction requires immediate abdominal thrusts. If the resident becomes unconscious, lower them to the floor and begin CPR.
The MOST important fall-prevention measure for a confused resident is:
- Keeping all four side rails up
- Keeping the bed in the lowest position with the call light within reach (correct answer)
- Restricting visitors
- Sedating the resident
Bed in the lowest position, call light in reach, non-skid footwear, frequent rounding, and a clutter-free room are the best fall-prevention strategies. Four side rails up are considered a restraint.
Which is true about oxygen safety?
- Open flames are safe near oxygen
- Petroleum-based products like Vaseline can be used freely near oxygen
- NO SMOKING signs must be posted and no open flames or sparks may be near the resident (correct answer)
- Oxygen tanks can be stored lying down
Oxygen supports combustion. NO SMOKING signs must be posted, electrical equipment that sparks must be avoided, and petroleum products should not be used on the resident's face.
Which is the correct action if a resident begins to fall during ambulation?
- Try to hold them up by the arm
- Ease them to the floor while bending your knees and protecting their head (correct answer)
- Let them fall and then assess
- Walk away to get help
Never try to stop a fall mid-air — you can injure yourself and the resident. Bend your knees, hold the gait belt, and ease the resident to the floor in a controlled descent, protecting the head.
After a fall, what should the CNA do FIRST?
- Help the resident up
- Leave the resident on the floor, check responsiveness, and call the nurse (correct answer)
- Walk away
- Document the fall
Never move a fallen resident until the nurse assesses for injury, particularly hip, head, or spine trauma. Stay with the resident, check responsiveness, and call for help.
Which is a sign of a heart attack (myocardial infarction)?
- Mild headache only
- Chest pain or pressure that may radiate to the jaw or left arm, with sweating and nausea (correct answer)
- Itchy skin
- Foot pain
Classic signs are chest pain or pressure that may radiate to the jaw, neck, or left arm, with sweating, shortness of breath, and nausea. Women and elderly often present atypically with fatigue or indigestion.
Which is the FAST acronym used to identify a stroke?
- Falling, Aphasia, Slurred, Tingling
- Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call 911 (correct answer)
- Fast pulse, Anxious, Sweating, Trembling
- Fatigue, Aches, Skin pale, Thirst
FAST: Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call 911. Each minute of delay in stroke care causes brain cell loss, so rapid identification saves function.
A resident has a seizure. The CNA should:
- Restrain the resident
- Put something in the resident's mouth
- Protect the head, clear the area of hazards, do NOT restrain or put anything in the mouth, and time the seizure (correct answer)
- Lift the resident into bed mid-seizure
During a seizure: protect the head with a soft surface, clear surrounding hazards, loosen tight clothing, time the duration, and never restrain the resident or place anything in the mouth.
Which item is needed for safe sharps disposal?
- A red biohazard bag
- A regular trash can
- A puncture-resistant sharps container (correct answer)
- A clear plastic bag
Sharps go directly into a labeled, puncture-resistant sharps container. Never recap a used needle, never overfill the container, and replace before the fill line is exceeded.
A resident's call light has been ringing for 10 minutes. The CNA should:
- Ignore it if busy
- Tell another CNA to handle it
- Respond promptly — unanswered call lights are linked to falls and are considered neglect (correct answer)
- Turn the call light off at the station
Call lights must be answered promptly. Delays are a leading cause of falls, missed bathroom needs, and resident dissatisfaction. Unanswered call lights can be considered neglect.
Which equipment should be checked for safety BEFORE every transfer?
- The TV
- Bed and chair brakes (locked), gait belt fit, and clear pathway (correct answer)
- The resident's preferred radio station
- The room temperature
Before a transfer: lock the bed and chair wheels, check that the gait belt is snug, ensure non-skid footwear is on, and clear the path of clutter or tubing.
Which of the following is a Material Safety Data Sheet (SDS) used for?
- Listing medications
- Providing information on the safe handling of hazardous chemicals in the workplace (correct answer)
- Tracking resident vital signs
- Scheduling staff
Safety Data Sheets (SDS) — formerly MSDS — are required by OSHA for every hazardous chemical in the workplace. CNAs must know where to find them.
Which is the correct response to a tornado warning at the facility?
- Open windows
- Move residents to interior hallways, away from windows (correct answer)
- Leave the building
- Take residents to the roof
During a tornado warning, move residents to interior hallways and away from windows. Close all doors. Cover with blankets and pillows if possible. Stay until the all-clear.
A resident is found unresponsive without a pulse and is NOT a DNR. The CNA should:
- Wait for the nurse
- Call for help, activate the emergency response system, and begin CPR (correct answer)
- Move the resident
- Apply oxygen alone
On finding an unresponsive resident without a DNR: call for help, activate the emergency response (code blue), and begin CPR (chest compressions) immediately. Every minute reduces survival by about 10%.
When does the CNA need to check chemical labels and SDS?
- Only the first time using a chemical
- Whenever working with cleaning products or chemicals on the job (correct answer)
- Only during inspections
- Never
OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard requires workers to read labels and have access to SDS whenever they handle a chemical, even one used routinely.
Which footwear is safest for a resident who is ambulatory?
- Slip-on socks
- Loose slippers
- Non-skid, well-fitting shoes (correct answer)
- Going barefoot
Non-skid, well-fitting closed shoes prevent slips and falls. Loose slippers and stockings without grip are top fall hazards in long-term care.
Which is the correct compression depth for adult CPR?
- About 1 inch
- At least 2 inches but no more than 2.4 inches (correct answer)
- 4 inches
- Whatever feels right
Adult CPR compressions are at least 2 inches deep but no more than 2.4 inches, at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute. Allow full chest recoil between compressions.
Bed alarms and chair alarms are an example of:
- A restraint
- A restraint alternative for fall-risk residents (correct answer)
- A HIPAA violation
- An unnecessary device
Bed and chair alarms are restraint alternatives. They alert staff when a fall-risk resident attempts to get up without restricting movement, which is preferred over physical restraints.
If a small grease fire breaks out in a unit kitchen, the CNA should:
- Pour water on it
- Smother it with a lid or use a Class K extinguisher and activate the fire alarm (correct answer)
- Open windows
- Leave it alone
Water spreads grease fires. Smother with a lid or use a Class K kitchen extinguisher. Always activate the alarm and follow facility evacuation procedures.
What is the correct sequence when responding to a fire?
- Extinguish, Rescue, Alarm, Contain
- Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish (RACE) (correct answer)
- Alarm, Run, Call, Evacuate
- Evacuate, Rescue, Alarm, Call
RACE: Rescue residents in immediate danger first, Activate the alarm, Contain fire and smoke by closing doors, then Extinguish if safe. Rescue always comes before extinguishing.
FAQ: Safety and Emergency Procedures on the CNA Exam
How many safety and emergency procedures questions are on the actual NNAAP exam?
The NNAAP written exam has 60 scored questions distributed across eight content areas. Safety and Emergency Procedures is one of the most heavily tested categories, with several questions appearing on every form of the exam. Drilling these questions repeatedly until you can explain why each correct answer is correct is the best way to lock in the material.
What should I do if I miss several questions on this safety and emergency procedures practice test?
Re-read the corresponding free study guide (linked above and below) before retaking the test. Take notes on the exact concept you missed — for example, 'I confused contact and droplet precautions' — and review the explanations until the pattern is clear. Most students need 2 to 3 cycles of test, review, and retake before consistently scoring above 80%.
Are these questions identical to the real CNA exam?
No. The actual NNAAP, Prometric, Headmaster, and PSI exams are confidential and only the official testing vendors have access to live items. Our questions are written by us to mirror NNAAP style, difficulty, and content distribution based on the publicly available NNAAP content outline. Performing well here is a strong predictor of passing the real test.
Do I have to pay or sign up to take this practice test?
No. Every practice test, study guide, and resource on freecnatraining.org is 100% free, with no signup or paywall. Most other CNA practice test sites charge $30 to $100 per month for access; we are funded by our nursing-school directory and keep the study material free for students.