Free CNA Practice Test
Basic Nursing Skills
25 NNAAP-style questions, one at a time — just like exam day. Score and full explanations at the end.
Free CNA practice test on basic nursing skills — vital signs, height and weight, intake and output, positioning, transfers, ambulation, and range of motion. The Basic Nursing and Restorative Skills block is the largest single content area on the NNAAP written exam.
Need a refresher first? Read our free Basic Nursing Skills study guide before taking the test.
Exam-simulator mode: picking an answer saves it and automatically moves you to the next question. You will not see right/wrong until you finish — just like the real NNAAP.
Question 1 of 25.Which is a NORMAL adult oral temperature range?
Prefer to read? All 25 questions with answers
Which is a NORMAL adult oral temperature range?
- 95.0 to 96.5 F
- 97.6 to 99.6 F (correct answer)
- 100 to 101 F
- 101 to 102 F
The normal adult oral temperature range is 97.6 to 99.6 degrees Fahrenheit, with an average of 98.6 F. Axillary readings run about 1 degree lower and rectal/tympanic readings about 1 degree higher.
Where is the radial pulse located?
- On the neck
- On the thumb side of the inner wrist (correct answer)
- In the groin
- Behind the knee
The radial pulse is found on the thumb side of the inner wrist over the radial artery. Use the first two fingers, never the thumb (which has its own pulse).
Normal respiratory rate for a resting adult is:
- 6 to 10 breaths per minute
- 12 to 20 breaths per minute (correct answer)
- 22 to 30 breaths per minute
- 35 to 45 breaths per minute
12 to 20 breaths per minute is the normal adult respiratory rate. Count without telling the resident, since awareness changes the rate.
Which blood-pressure reading should be reported IMMEDIATELY to the nurse?
- 118/74
- 122/78
- 85/55 (correct answer)
- 120/80
A blood pressure below 90/60 is hypotensive and may indicate shock, dehydration, or medication effects. Report any reading outside the resident's baseline.
How often should a bedbound resident be repositioned?
- Every 8 hours
- Every 4 hours
- At least every 2 hours (correct answer)
- Once per shift
Immobile residents must be repositioned at least every 2 hours to prevent pressure injuries, maintain circulation, and prevent contractures.
Which side of the bed should the chair be placed on for a transfer?
- The resident's weaker side
- The resident's stronger side (correct answer)
- Either side
- The side closest to the door
The chair is placed on the resident's stronger (unaffected) side at a slight angle so the resident can push up with the strong leg and pivot toward the chair safely.
Before transferring a resident from bed to chair, what should the CNA do FIRST after raising the head of the bed?
- Dangle the resident's legs at the bedside (correct answer)
- Apply lotion to the resident's back
- Turn off the call light
- Open the curtains
Dangling — sitting on the edge of the bed for a minute or two — prevents orthostatic hypotension and dizziness when the resident stands. It is a required NNAAP step.
How tight should a transfer (gait) belt be?
- So loose that the whole hand fits underneath
- Snug enough that only fingers fit underneath (correct answer)
- As tight as possible
- It does not matter
The gait belt is snug enough that only the CNA's fingers fit underneath but not the whole hand. It is placed over clothing, never on bare skin or surgical sites.
Which is the correct conversion for fluid intake?
- 1 oz = 10 mL
- 1 oz = 20 mL
- 1 oz = 30 mL (correct answer)
- 1 oz = 60 mL
1 fluid ounce equals 30 milliliters. A standard 8-oz cup is therefore 240 mL. Memorize this for I&O documentation and the NNAAP exam.
Which item is counted as INTAKE on an I&O chart?
- Mashed potatoes
- Buttered toast
- Gelatin (Jell-O) (correct answer)
- Crackers
Anything liquid at room temperature counts as intake — including gelatin, ice cream, popsicles, soup broth, and ice chips (half their volume). Solid foods are not counted.
Which urine output value should be reported to the nurse immediately?
- 50 mL per hour
- Less than 30 mL per hour (correct answer)
- 75 mL per hour
- 100 mL per hour
Urine output below 30 mL per hour suggests poor kidney perfusion and must be reported immediately. Normal adult output is approximately 30 to 60 mL per hour.
Which position has the head of the bed elevated 45 to 60 degrees?
- Supine
- Prone
- Sims'
- Fowler's (correct answer)
Fowler's position has the head of the bed at 45-60 degrees. Semi-Fowler's is 30-45 degrees, and high Fowler's is 60-90 degrees. Fowler's is used for eating and breathing comfort.
Which side of the body is the cane held on for a resident with a weak left leg?
- Left (weak) side
- Right (strong) side (correct answer)
- Whichever feels comfortable
- Either, as long as the resident is balanced
The cane is always held on the strong side. The sequence is: cane forward, then the weak leg, then the strong leg.
How many times should each joint be moved during range-of-motion exercises?
- 1 to 2 repetitions
- 3 to 5 repetitions (correct answer)
- 10 repetitions
- 20 repetitions
Each joint should be moved through its full range of motion 3 to 5 times during a ROM session, performed at least twice daily.
Which type of ROM is performed when the resident cannot move the joint at all?
- Active ROM
- Active-assistive ROM
- Passive ROM (correct answer)
- Resistive ROM
Passive ROM (PROM) is performed entirely by the CNA while the resident is relaxed. Active ROM is done by the resident alone, and active-assistive is shared between resident and caregiver.
Which finding requires the CNA to STOP a ROM exercise and notify the nurse?
- The resident smiles
- The resident reports pain or you feel a grinding sensation (correct answer)
- The joint moves smoothly
- The resident says it feels good
Pain, grinding (crepitus), or a noticeable decrease in range from yesterday's baseline are all reasons to stop ROM, hold the joint comfortably, and notify the nurse.
Which is the correct technique for measuring an apical pulse?
- Count for 15 seconds and multiply by 4
- Count for 30 seconds and multiply by 2
- Count for a full 60 seconds with a stethoscope on the left side of the chest (correct answer)
- Count at the wrist for 60 seconds
An apical pulse is always counted for a FULL minute using a stethoscope placed at the apex of the heart (5th intercostal space, midclavicular line on the left).
Daily weights should be measured:
- At a different time each day
- After breakfast, with shoes on
- At the same time each day, on the same scale, in similar clothing, after the first void (correct answer)
- Whenever convenient
Daily weights are most accurate when taken at the same time of day, on the same scale, in similar clothing, after the resident's first void. This makes trends meaningful.
Which is a sign of dehydration in an elderly resident?
- Moist mucous membranes
- Decreased urine output and dry tongue (correct answer)
- Bounding pulse
- Edema in the ankles
Signs of dehydration include decreased urine output, dry mucous membranes, tongue with deep furrows, sunken eyes, dizziness on standing, and confusion.
When using a mechanical (Hoyer) lift, how many staff members are required?
- One
- At least two (correct answer)
- At least three
- It depends on the resident's weight
A mechanical lift requires at least two staff: one to operate the lift and one to guide the sling. Never use a lift alone — it is unsafe for both staff and resident.
Which is the correct order of vital signs documentation in TPR format?
- Pulse, respiration, temperature
- Temperature, pulse, respiration (correct answer)
- Respiration, temperature, pulse
- Temperature, respiration, pulse
TPR stands for Temperature, Pulse, Respiration — and is documented in that order. Blood pressure is added separately.
The CNA notices a small red area on the resident's sacrum that does not blanch when pressed. The CNA should:
- Massage the area to improve circulation
- Apply hot water bottle
- Reposition off the area and report to the nurse (correct answer)
- Cover with a bandage and continue care
Non-blanching redness is a Stage 1 pressure injury. The area must be offloaded and reported immediately. Massage is contraindicated — it worsens tissue damage.
Which finding during oral care should be reported to the nurse?
- Pink, moist mucous membranes
- White patches on the tongue and inside the cheeks (correct answer)
- Healthy teeth
- Pink gums
White patches in the mouth can indicate thrush (candidiasis), poor oral hygiene, or dehydration. Always report sores, bleeding, white patches, or loose teeth.
When ambulating a resident with a walker, where should the CNA stand?
- In front of the resident
- Slightly behind and to the weak side, holding the gait belt (correct answer)
- Far behind the resident
- Holding the resident's hand
The CNA walks slightly behind and to the weaker side of the resident, holding the gait belt with an underhand grip. All four legs of the walker should be on the floor before stepping.
Which principle of body mechanics protects the CNA's back during a heavy lift?
- Twist at the waist to reach the load
- Keep feet together and knees straight
- Keep feet shoulder-width apart, bend at the knees, and hold the load close (correct answer)
- Lift with the back muscles
Proper body mechanics: feet shoulder-width apart, bend at hips and knees (not the waist), hold the load close to the body, push or pull when possible, and pivot the feet rather than twist.
FAQ: Basic Nursing Skills on the CNA Exam
How many basic nursing skills questions are on the actual NNAAP exam?
The NNAAP written exam has 60 scored questions distributed across eight content areas. Basic Nursing Skills is one of the most heavily tested categories, with several questions appearing on every form of the exam. Drilling these questions repeatedly until you can explain why each correct answer is correct is the best way to lock in the material.
What should I do if I miss several questions on this basic nursing skills practice test?
Re-read the corresponding free study guide (linked above and below) before retaking the test. Take notes on the exact concept you missed — for example, 'I confused contact and droplet precautions' — and review the explanations until the pattern is clear. Most students need 2 to 3 cycles of test, review, and retake before consistently scoring above 80%.
Are these questions identical to the real CNA exam?
No. The actual NNAAP, Prometric, Headmaster, and PSI exams are confidential and only the official testing vendors have access to live items. Our questions are written by us to mirror NNAAP style, difficulty, and content distribution based on the publicly available NNAAP content outline. Performing well here is a strong predictor of passing the real test.
Do I have to pay or sign up to take this practice test?
No. Every practice test, study guide, and resource on freecnatraining.org is 100% free, with no signup or paywall. Most other CNA practice test sites charge $30 to $100 per month for access; we are funded by our nursing-school directory and keep the study material free for students.